Was God Really Silent for 400 Years?


Episode 857 | Adriel Sanchez and Bill Maier answer caller questions.

Show Notes


Questions in this Episode

1. Why is the label, “the Word” used for so many different things? I’ve always understood John 1:1 as referring to Jesus. But I’m curious why we also refer to the Bible as “the Word.”

2. I was raised as a Roman Catholic, but I am learning a lot more about what I believe the Bible teaches regarding doctrine and things like praying the rosary. My Roman Catholic family members are concerned for me because they see this as me leaving the faith. How do I address the concerns of my family members and assure them that I am not leaving Christianity?

3. Why was God silent for 400 years in between the Old and New Testaments? Is this hyperbole and is this silence between the Old and New Testaments something we don’t have to believe in? What is its significance?

4. The Gospel accounts are often based on eyewitness testimony, but there were no eyewitnesses to Jesus’s temptation in the desert with Satan. How do we really know what transpired in those accounts?

5. When the Pharisees questioned Jesus about a woman married to many men and asked which husband she would be betrothed to at the resurrection, Jesus said, “no one will be given to each other in heaven.” If that’s right, then why does God make such a big deal about marriage in the Bible?

6. If Peter was forgiven 3 times for denying Christ, why wasn’t Judas?

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